So, this can be really long or concise, let’s see where it goes!
Yahweh, the name of God, is ascribed to the Godhead which consists of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit. These three distinct persons are one essence or being. This ‘distinctness’ is what needs to be emphasized whenever we speak of the ‘relationship’ within the Godhead. There has always been a relationship between the persons of the Godhead: in creation you have the Spirit moving over the creation, the Fathers creative power flowing through his co-regent of creation, the Son. We find evidence of this relationship and fellowship spoken of either directly or indirectly throughout the Bible. Examples are: Genesis 1, Proverbs 8: 22-31, 1 Cor 15:20-28, Colossians 1: 15-20, Hebrews 1, 2 Peter 1: 16-20, Rev 1:4-8 & 21:22-22:6. This list is only a few of the Biblical passages without going into the Gospel of John where this relationship and distinction is made the most evident: John 1:1-3, 14 , 18; 3: 16,17; 4:21-26; 5: 18-47; 6: 35-46; 7: 28-29, 37-39; 8: 12-29, 36-59; 10: 14-18, 31-39; 11: 40-42; 12: 27-32, 44-50; {14; 15;16; 17}- most comprehensive chapters on the Godhead distinctions, roles and relationship; 19:11; 20: 17-23.
So, how does it work-”Why should Jesus pray?” and “Why would Jesus say, ‘Let this cup pass from me, nevertheless, thy will be done’ if he is part of the Godhead- shouldn’t his will and the Fathers be the same?” I believe that without a proper understanding of the eternal relationship in light of Phillippians 2: 5-11, Hebrews 2:9-18, 5: 7-8, when the Son took on flesh and dwelt among us, it may be understandable that some may be confused by these questions. However, from many of the passages already listed it can be seen or inferred that there has always been a ‘spoken’ relationship within the Godhead and by God, i.e. God creates man in His image and right away we see dialogue take place with this creation- Genesis itself begins in vs. 3 by saying, “then God said…”, which shows the language in the Godhead. It continues in Genesis 17 and 18 with Yahweh sitting, eating and talking with Abraham and Sarah. The Angel of the Lord wrestles with Jacob, Speaks to Moses from the bush and Gideon in the winepress. Why bring these up? Because it reveals a relational being; a God who wants to communicate with his creation through actual speech and physical presence. Look at Job 1, it shows God speaking with his angels and Satan about his servant Job, and we know God can relate in other ways. Take for example the prophets who receive a message from God, the Apostles who received the word of God: this wasn’t auditory speech but reveletory speech and leading; yet, even though God could communicate in other ways, he chooses many times, especially in the case of the Son, to speak and have a physical presence. God, Yahweh, is a relational God that speaks.
Now, take this aspect of the Godhead, Yahweh, being intentionally relational through speech, and combine it from what we know in Philippians 2 and Hebrews 2 and we have a clear picture of Jesus the Son’s relationship with the Father while wrapped in flesh. He was God and yet he voluntarily laid aside his privileges to accomplish the plan of God- his plan. He experienced temptation in all ways we do, yet without sin, but real temptation! He had all the experience of the human body, yet he didn’t succumb to sin because He was filled with the Spirit and was totally committed to the Fathers will (we who believe have the filling, but we falter in the total commitment).
So, why did Jesus pray? Because he had always had this relationship with the Father, and now in the flesh, he felt the need to not only maintain his relationship but experience the fellowship and communion with the Godhead as best he could while walking this earth, in a body of flesh, and his privileges laid aside. He was experiencing temptation and he would call on his Father in the strength of Spirit. He was perfected by his submission to the Father, never having experienced temptation and ‘life’ in this way, he accomplished a perfect, sinless life, being prepared as the spotless Lamb!
Wasn’t his will the same as the Father? Well, yes it was, it is referred to many times that he was not only submissive to the Fathers will but was in total agreement with it: Mark 8:31-33- Jesus explains the reason he came (Gods will) and then reprimands Peter for ‘not setting your mind on God’s interests…’ ; Luke 12:49-53- Jesus affirms that he will ‘accomplish’ his ‘baptism’; Luke 18:31-34- Jesus tells the twelve of the plan of God and what is ahead for himself; John 8:27-29- Jesus speaks of being ‘lifted up’ and then states that ‘I always do the things that are pleasing to Him’ (the Father); John 12:27-34- Jesus plainly says that “My soul has become troubled; and what shall I say, ‘Father, save me from this hour’? But it is for this purpose I came to this hour. Father, glorify your name!” and right away he is affirmed by the Father; John 17:1-12- in Jesus’ prayer he completely confirms his unity and oneness with the Father; and lastly, Eph 1:3-14- shows the Sons involvement and ‘one essence’ in the Godhead with the Gospel plan in the predetermined will of God. Once again, this is an incomplete list but gives a good foundational demonstration of Jesus' complete submission to the Fathers will. So, why did he pray, ‘not my will but thine be done’? Because, as demonstrated in a few of the passages just outlined, and with the understanding of the passages in Phillipians and Hebrews, Jesus was in anguish, battling the flesh, the humanness, not wanting to experience separation from the Father while the sinfulness of all mankind was poured out on him and subjected to the wrath of God: he had never before experienced anything like this- God is separate from sin- and through it he perfectly accomplished the plan for our redemption and reconciliation to himself, to God. So, his will was to not experience this, yet, as always, he was completely obedient to the Fathers will. And as is referred to in Hebrews 5:9, because he was perfectly obedient and submissive in his time as the Son who “learned obedience from the things which He suffered”, he has now “became to those who obey him the source of eternal salvation.”
Praise God! I know this was quite a lengthy answer, however, it was hard for me to just say “Well, he was in the flesh, set aside his privileges, and because of that he was tempted just like we are, and even though he was perfectly obedient his will seemed to conflict with the Father so he prayed to have the Fathers will done. And he prayed because he wanted to experience his close fellowship with the Godhead which he had voluntarily set aside to accomplish the plan of God.” Even though that does kind of sum it all up doesn’t it!
Randy
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